Study guide for the final exam

Molecule A

Molecule B

____ 46. Refer to the illustration above. Molecules like Molecule B are found in

a.	carbohydrates.	c.	nucleic acids.
b.	lipids.	d.	proteins.

____ 47. Liquid fats called oils contain

a.	mostly unsaturated fatty acids.	c.	many glucose molecules.
b.	mostly saturated fatty acids.	d.	amino acids.

____ 48. Animals store glucose in the form of

a.	cellulose.	c.	wax.
b.	glycogen.	d.	lipids.

____ 49. The two types of nucleic acids are

a.	chlorophyll and retinal.	c.	lipids and sugars.
b.	DNA and RNA.	d.	glucose and glycogen.

____ 50. DNA stores

a.	fat.	c.	protein.
b.	carbohydrates.	d.	heredity information.

____ 51. The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by

a.	ionic bonds.	c.	hydrogen bonds.
b.	covalent bonds.	d.	None of the above

____ 52. A molecule shaped like a spiral staircase (double helix) is typical of

a.	deoxyribonucleic acid.	c.	lipids.
b.	ribonucleic acid.	d.	carbohydrates.

____ 53. Which of the following conditions affects the function of enzymes?

a.	pH	c.	enzyme concentration
b.	heat	d.	All of the above

____ 54. A cell contains

a.	thousands of different kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
b.	one kind of enzyme that promotes thousands of different chemical reactions.
c.	approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each promoting a different chemical reaction.
d.	one enzyme that promotes photosynthesis and one enzyme that promotes cellular respiration.

____ 55. The metric system of measurement is based on powers of

a.	1.	c.	100.
b.	10.	d.	1,000.

____ 56. One meter is equal to

a.	1,000 mm.	c.	0.001 km.
b.	100 cm.	d.	All of the above

____ 57. A microscope with a 4´ objective lens and a 10´ ocular lens produces a total magnification of

a.	14´.	c.	400´.
b.	40´.	d.	4000´.

____ 58. The most powerful light microscope can magnify an object about

a.	500´.	c.	50,000´.
b.	2,000´.	d.	200,000´.

____ 59. Living specimens can be viewed using a(n)

a.	light microscope.	c.	scanning tunneling microscope.
b.	electron microscope.	d.	Both (a) and (c)

____ 60. The smallest units of life are

a.	cells.	c.	chloroplasts.
b.	mitochondria.	d.	None of the above

____ 61. Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?

a.	structure 1	c.	structure 3
b.	structure 2	d.	structure 4

____ 62. Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are found in

a.	structure 1.	c.	structure 3.
b.	structure 2.	d.	structure 5.

____ 63. Refer to the illustration above. Which structure produces vesicles filled with proteins?

a.	structure 1	c.	structure 5
b.	structure 2	d.	Both (a) and (c)

____ 64. Refer to the illustration above. Structure 5 is

a.	part of the endoplasmic reticulum.	c.	a mitochondrion.
b.	a Golgi apparatus.	d.	the nucleus.

____ 65. Refer to the illustration above. Structure 2 is

a.	rough endoplasmic reticulum.	c.	a mitochondrion.
b.	a Golgi apparatus.	d.	the nucleus.

____ 66. Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure 3

a.	to transport material from one part of the cell to another.
b.	to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c.	as a receptor protein.
d.	to produce ATP.

____ 67. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because it

a.	has mitochondria.	c.	has a cell membrane.
b.	does not have a cell wall.	d.	does not have a nucleus.

____ 68. Refer to the illustration above. The structure that acts as a gate to the cell’s interior is labeled

a.	A.	c.	C.
b.	B.	d.	D.

____ 69. Refer to the illustration above. Structure C is a

a.	carbohydrate chain.	c.	fatty acid.
b.	glycerol molecule.	d.	nucleic acid.

____ 70. One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that

a.	nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b.	mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c.	Golgi vesicles are found only in prokaryotes.
d.	prokaryotes do not have a nucleus.

____ 71. Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotes?

a.	They have a nucleus.
b.	Their evolution preceded that of eukaryotes.
c.	The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes.
d.	None of the above

____ 72. Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell?

a.	amoeba	c.	bacterium
b.	virus	d.	liver cell

____ 73. Only eukaryotic cells have

a.	DNA.	c.	ribosomes.
b.	membrane-bound organelles.	d.	cytoplasm.

____ 74. A structure within a eukaryotic cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)

a.	organelle.	c.	tissue.
b.	organ tissue.	d.	biocenter.

____ 75. Short, hairlike structures that protrude from the surface of a cell and are packed in tight rows are called

a.	flagella.	c.	microfilaments.
b.	microtubules.	d.	cilia.

____ 76. Which type of molecule forms a lipid bilayer within a cell membrane?

a.	protein	c.	nucleic acid
b.	phospholipid	d.	carbohydrate

____ 77. The cell membrane

a.	encloses the contents of a cell.
b.	allows materials to enter and leave the cell.
c.	is selectively permeable.
d.	All of the above

____ 78. Phospholipids are molecules that

a.	contain phosphate.
b.	have nonpolar “tails” and polar “heads.”
c.	form the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane.
d.	All of the above

____ 79. The structure that regulates what enters and leaves the cell is the

a.	nucleus.	c.	nuclear membrane.
b.	cell wall.	d.	cell membrane.

____ 80. The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that

a.	receives proteins and lipids from the endoplasmic reticulum.
b.	packages molecules made in the endoplasmic reticulum.
c.	is involved in the distribution of proteins.
d.	All of the above

____ 81. The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the

a.	nucleus.	c.	central vacuole.
b.	Golgi apparatus.	d.	nuclear envelope.

____ 82. In a cell, proteins are made on the

a.	mitochondria.	c.	nucleus.
b.	ribosomes.	d.	cell membrane.

____ 83. A cell that requires a lot of energy might contain large numbers of

a.	chromosomes.	c.	mitochondria.
b.	vacuoles.	d.	lysosomes.

____ 84. The organelles associated with plant photosynthesis are the

a.	mitochondria.	c.	Golgi apparatus.
b.	chloroplasts.	d.	vacuoles.

____ 85. Plant cells have a large membrane-bound space in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This space is called the

a.	mitochondrion.	c.	Golgi apparatus.
b.	chloroplast.	d.	vacuole.

____ 86. How are chloroplasts similar to mitochondria?

a.	They can both use energy from sunlight.
b.	They are both found in prokaryotic cells.
c.	They both contain their own DNA.
d.	They are both found in animal cells.

____ 87. All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except

a.	a cell wall.	c.	mitochondria.
b.	a cell membrane.	d.	endoplasmic reticulum.

____ 88. The chromosome of a bacterium

a.	is wrapped around proteins.
b.	has a circular shape.
c.	occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.	is found within the nucleus.

____ 89. In a bacterium, cell division takes place when

a.	its nucleus divides.
b.	the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.	the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.	None of the above

____ 90. The point at which two chromatids are attached to each other in a chromosome is called a(n)

a.	chloroplast.	c.	gamete.
b.	centromere.	d.	centriole.

____ 91. Chromatids are

a.	dense patches within the nucleus.
b.	bacterial chromosomes.
c.	joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.	prokaryotic nuclei.

____ 92. The chromosomes in your body

a.	exist in 23 pairs in all cells but gametes.
b.	each contain thousands of genes.
c.	form right before cells divide.
d.	All of the above

____ 93. In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by

a.	breaking apart into separate genes.
b.	extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.	wrapping tightly around associated proteins.
d.	being enzymatically changed into a protein.

____ 94. When a molecule of DNA is being used to direct a cell’s activities,

a.	areas containing specific active genes are extended.
b.	the areas of the molecule containing active genes become shorter.
c.	the entire DNA molecule becomes tightly coiled.
d.	the molecule becomes a rod-shaped structure with two chromatids.

____ 95. Normal human males develop from fertilized eggs containing which of the following sex chromosome combinations?

a.	XY	c.	XO
b.	XX	d.	OO

____ 96. Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for

a.	different traits.	c.	DNA.
b.	the same traits.	d.	cytosol.

____ 97. In humans, gametes contain

a.	22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
b.	1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes.
c.	45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
d.	1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes.

____ 98. In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have

a.	two X chromosomes.	c.	two Y chromosomes.
b.	one X and one Y chromosome.	d.	46 chromosomes.

____ 99. The X and Y chromosomes are called the

a.	extra chromosomes.	c.	sex chromosomes.
b.	phenotypes.	d.	All of the above

____ 100. female : XX ::

a.	female : gametes	c.	male : YY
b.	female : eggs	d.	male : XY

____ 101. How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8?

a.	4	c.	12
b.	8	d.	16

____ 102. The diploid number of chromosomes in a human skin cell is 46. The number of chromosomes found in a human ovum is

a.	46.	c.	23.
b.	92.	d.	12.5.

____ 103. diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :

a.	body cell	c.	gamete
b.	chromosome	d.	zygote

____ 104. A diploid cell is one that

a.	has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.	is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.	has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.	All of the above

____ 105. People with Down syndrome have

a.	45 chromosomes.	c.	47 chromosomes.
b.	46 chromosomes.	d.	no X chromosomes.

____ 106. A student can study a karyotype to learn about the

a.	cell cycle.
b.	genes that are present in a particular strand of DNA.
c.	medical history of an individual.
d.	number and structure of the chromosomes in a somatic cell.

____ 107. The stage of the cell cycle that occupies most of the cell’s life is

a.	G1.	c.	G2.
b.	M.	d.	S.

____ 108. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?

a.	C ® M ® G1 ® S ® G2	c.	G1 ® S ® G2 ® M ® C
b.	S ® G1 ® G2 ® M ® C	d.	None of the above

____ 109. Cells that are not dividing remain in the

a.	mitosis phase.	c.	first growth phase.
b.	synthesis phase.	d.	cytokinesis phase.

____ 110. The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by

a.	DNA replication.
b.	cell division.
c.	replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
d.	the division of cytoplasm.

____ 111. cell growth : G₁ ::

a.	mitosis : C	c.	mitochondria replication : S
b.	mitosis : meiosis	d.	DNA copying : S

____ 112. At the DNA synthesis (G₂) checkpoint, DNA replication is checked by

a.	receptor proteins.	c.	repair enzymes.
b.	electron transport chains.	d.	cell surface markers.

____ 113. The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through

a.	cellular respiration.	c.	photosynthesis.
b.	checkpoints.	d.	homeostasis.

____ 114. In eukaryotes, the cell cycle is controlled by

a.	proteins.	c.	lipids.
b.	carbohydrates.	d.	fats.

____ 115. Normal cells become cancer cells when

a.	regulation of cell growth and division is lost.
b.	cells do not respond normally to control mechanisms.
c.	cells continue to divide without passing through G1.
d.	All of the above

____ 116. Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram 1 is in

a.	metaphase.	c.	anaphase.
b.	telophase.	d.	prophase.

____ 117. Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram

a.	1.	c.	3.
b.	2.	d.	4.

STUDY GUIDE FOR THE FINAL EXAM

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 1.1.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.2
5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.2
6. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.3
7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.3
8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

9. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

10. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

12. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

14. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.1.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.2.5
16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.1

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2A

17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.1

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2A

18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.1

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2A

19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.1

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2A

20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.2

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.2

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.2

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

23. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.2

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 1.3.2

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

25. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.4

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

26. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 1.3.4

STA: TAKS 1 IPC 3A | Bio 3A

27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.1.1

STA: TAKS 4 IPC 7E (10th)

28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.1.1

STA: TAKS 4 IPC 7E (10th)

29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.1.1

STA: TAKS 4 IPC 7E (10th)

30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.1.1

STA: TAKS 4 IPC 7E (10th)

31. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.2.1

STA: TAKS 4 IPC 9A

32. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.2.3

STA: TAKS 4 IPC 9B (11th)

33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.1

STA: Bio 9A

34. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.1

STA: Bio 9A

35. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

36. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

37. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

39. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

40. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

41. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

42. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A

44. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

45. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

46. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

47. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

48. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.3.2

STA: Bio 9A

49. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A

50. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.3.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A

51. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.3.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A

52. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.3.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A

53. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 2.4.3

STA: Bio 9C

54. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 2.4.3

STA: Bio 9C

55. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.1

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2B

56. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.1

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2B

57. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 IPC 5B (11th)

58. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.4

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2A

59. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.4

STA: TAKS 1 Bio/IPC 2A

60. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

61. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

62. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

63. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

64. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

65. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

66. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.3

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

67. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.4

STA: Bio 4A

68. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 3.2.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

69. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 3.2.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

70. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

71. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

72. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

73. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

74. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

75. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.3

STA: Bio 4A

76. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

77. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

78. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

79. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.2.4

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B

80. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

81. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

82. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.2

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

83. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 3.3.3

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B

84. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.4

STA: Bio 4A

85. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.4

STA: Bio 4A

86. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.4

STA: Bio 4A

87. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.3.4

STA: Bio 4A

88. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.1

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

89. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.1

STA: Bio 4A | TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

90. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

91. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

92. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

93. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

94. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

95. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

96. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

97. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

98. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

99. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

100. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6A | Bio 6E

101. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.4

STA: Bio 6E

102. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.4

STA: Bio 6E

103. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.4

STA: Bio 6E

104. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.4

STA: Bio 6E

105. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.5

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6C | Bio 6F

106. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.5

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 6C | Bio 6F

107. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

108. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

109. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

110. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

111. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 6.2.1

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

112. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

113. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

114. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.2.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

115. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.2.3

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | TAKS 2 Bio 6C |

116. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.3.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E

117. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 6.3.2

STA: TAKS 2 Bio 4B | Bio 6E